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GED 108 Environmental Science Unit #1
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) Most of the world population growth in the near future will be in:
A) Europe
B) North America
C) developing countries
D) developed countries
2) If the Millennium Development Goals are achieved by 2015:
A) at least 30 developing countries will move into the developed category.
B) more than 400 million people will be lifted out of extreme poverty.
C) the population of the world will stop increasing.
D) people in the developing world will all have basic medical coverage.
3) The economic gap between developing and industrialized countries may best be narrowed by:
A) the adoption of democratic forms of government in developing countries
B) industrialized countries increasing shipments of food supplies to developing countries
C) industrialized countries harvesting more natural resources in developing countries
D) stabilizing population growth in developing countries
4) Which of the following ecosystem service degradations is not a major environmental concern for
sustainable development?
A) overfishing the oceans
B) degrading agricultural soils
C) depleting supplies of coal
D) cutting forests faster than they can regrow
5) Ecosystem capital includes:
A) erosion control
B) decreased in the amount of crops grown
C) increase in the number of cars traveling in a particular region
D) All of the above.
6) The “Environmentalist’s Paradox” is:
A) As human population decreases, ecosystem health also decreases.
B) As human well-being increases, natural ecosystem decreases.
C) The more non-renewable resources we use, the more new resources we discover.
D) As biodiversity decreases, ecosystem health increases.
Unit 1 Examination
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GED 108 Environmental Science
7) World population growth over the past 500 years has most resembled the letter:
A) M
B) U
C) S
D) J
8) Which one of the following ecosystem services has been enhanced most by human use?
A) capture fisheries
B) pollination
C) crops
D) wood fuel
9) Centrally planned and free-market economies both:
A) function best without government regulations
B) rely upon the self-interests of individuals
C) represent ideals not found in pure form in any country
D) depend upon free access to the market
10) In a free-market society:
A) the needs of the poor are best met by the interests of business.
B) the interests of the poor, labor and business are the same
C) governments ensure the free flow of goods and services in international trade
D) the needs of the poor are often not met by business interests but by government
programs
11) The World Trade Organization:
A) mainly regulates the use of global environmental resources
B) guards human rights and the environmental resources of the world
C) is widely recognized as the leader of global trade regulation
D) has steadily lost the power to regulate international trade
12) The best hope for the future global economy and environmental policy depends upon:
A) sustainability
B) economic growth
C) consumption
D) productivity
Unit 1 Examination
40
GED 108 Environmental Science
13) Sustainable economic and environmental policies will shift the focus from:
A) sustainability to productivity
B) growth to the well-being of humans
C) productivity to growth
D) productivity to profits
14) If current energy consumption trends continue and the per capita income of the world
increased dramatically, we would expect that:
A) global climate change will be a greater problem
B) literacy levels to decease
C) respiratory diseases in cities will increase
D) land and labor will no longer be economic factors
15) In comparing green to brown economies:
A) green economies will embrace technologies that reduce pollutants and increase
efficiency
B) brown economies will favor sustainable systems and reverse damage to ecosystem
services
C) both will continue with the race to develop more and more fossil fuel resources
D) green economies will stress rapid growth, while brown economies will stress human
well-being
16) Which of the following represents an abiotic component of a forest community?
A) the oak and hickory trees
B) the mushrooms growing on and around rotting logs
C) water trickling in a small stream
D) bacteria in the soil
17) Most organisms native to a desert community are:
A) well adapted to the heat and dry environment
B) well adapted to the heat but probably not the dry environment
C) well adapted to the dry environment but probably not the heat
D) not well adapted to the heat or dry environment
18) Within a community, species of:
A) plants rarely interact with fungi or bacteria
B) bacteria, plants, animals, and fungi all interact
C) plants and animals interact, but not with bacteria or fungi
D) bacteria and fungi interact with plants but not animals
Unit 1 Examination
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GED 108 Environmental Science
19) A single ecosystem will include:
A) an interactive complex of communities but not the abiotic environment
B) the abiotic environment but not an interactive complex of communities
C) many species of living organisms and may include humans
D) either a plant community or an animal community, but not both
20) Most ecosystems:
A) are sharply divided from other ecosystems
B) consist of two or more distinct landscapes
C) grade into other ecosystems in regions called ecotones
D) are clustered with other ecosystems to form communities
21) Ecotones:
A) contain only species found in the bordering ecosystems
B) have the same abiotic characteristics as the bordering ecosystems
C) consist of many distinct landscapes
D) are transitional regions between ecosystems
22) Which one of the following are much larger than landscapes?
A) landscape
B) ecotone
C) ecosystem
D) biome
23) Newly formed species typically have experienced different:
A) numbers of offspring
B) lifespans
C) dietary habits
D) selective pressures
24) In short, different selective pressures in closely related species will produce:
A) similar migration patterns
B) similar reproductive strategies
C) different adaptations
D) new mutations
25) The different Galápagos finch species:
A) evolved in South America and flew to the Galápagos Islands.
B) evolved from a single ancestral species that flew to the Galápagos Islands.
C) all feed on the same diet in the Galápagos Islands.
D) are primarily different because of variations in the structure of their feet.
Unit 1 Examination
42
GED 108 Environmental Science
Writing Assignment for Unit One
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number with your
writing assignment.
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be typed double-spaced, using a standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12
point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing
assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply
cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to
refer to
the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. Describe the origins of stewardship and its modern applications.
2. List four stages of the policy life cycle, and show how the discovery of ozone layer destruction
and the subsequent responses to it illustrate the cycle.
3. Define and compare the terms species, population, and ecosystem.
GED 108 Environmental Science Unit #2
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) ________ play a crucial role in releasing nutrients essential for plant growth to the soil.
A) Decomposers
B) Herbivores
C) Parasites
D) Producers
Deep in the ocean off the shore of Japan are communities nestled around hydrothermal vents
where super-heated water springs from the bottom of the ocean. No sunlight ever penetrates to
these deep regions. In these communities, bacteria have special enzymes that allow them to form
organic matter by chemosynthesis. These communities frequently have worms, clams, shrimp, and
many other organisms clustered together.
2) In such a system, fish feed on shrimp that feed on the bacteria. This food chain represents a:
A) tertiary consumer eating a secondary consumer eating a primary consumer
B) primary consumer eating a secondary consumer eating a tertiary consumer
C) consumer eating a producer which then consumes chemoautotrophic bacteria
D) secondary consumer eating a primary consumer which then eats a producer
3) Chemosynthesis is:
A) a consumer that eats a producer.
B) a producer exists using the energy from inorganic chemicals.
C) a green pigment.
D) not producers in the ecosystem.
4) In a forest, deer, raccoons, squirrels, and other animals eat and find shelter. A detrital food web
occurs as their wastes accumulate on the forest floor. In this detrital web:
A) decomposers function as consumers.
B) fungi and earthworms function as producers.
C) deer and raccoons function as the producers.
D) the deer and raccoons represent decomposers.
5) In rare ecosystems, we would not expect to find:
A) carbon compounds
B) chemosynthesis
C) chlorophyll
D) producers
Unit 2 Examination
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GED 108 Environmental Science
6) A raccoon spends its week eating raspberries, grain, eggs, and grasshoppers. Raccoons are
therefore:
A) carnivores
B) omnivores
C) herbivores
D) producers
7) The ability to feed the growing world population was addressed by the:
A) Green Revolution.
B) Medical Revolution.
C) Industrial Revolution.
D) Environmental Revolution.
8) Which problem today is primarily the result of the Industrial Revolution?
A) extensive air and water pollution
B) increased transmission of disease between people living in close proximity
C) decline in quality of agricultural soil
D) erosion from deforestation as more fuel wood is harvested
9) Which revolution may have the greatest impact on the future quality of life for people on Earth?
A) Industrial Revolution
B) Medical Revolution
C) Green Revolution
D) Environmental Revolution
10) According to demographer Joel Cohen, the human carrying capacity:
A) depends upon a standard of living.
B) can be calculated in the same way it is determined for other animal species.
C) can clearly be determined.
D) largely depends upon the availability of fresh water.
11) Better sanitation and nutrition generally resulted from the:
A) Industrial Revolution
B) Medical Revolution
C) Green Revolution
D) Environmental Revolution
Unit 2 Examination
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GED 108 Environmental Science
12) A declining dependency ratio:
A) requires immediate and permanent increased spending on education and old-age
medical expenses
B) requires increased spending on education but decreased costs associated with old-age
medical expenses
C) requires permanently decreased spending on education but temporarily increased costs
associated with old-age medical expenses
D) permits temporarily decreased spending on education and old-age medical expenses
13) The window of opportunity presented by the demographic dividend generally ends as:
A) people start having larger families
B) people live longer
C) economic pressures require more people to work
D) rural populations increase
14) In general, fertility rates:
A) decrease as per capita income increases
B) decrease as per capita income decreases
C) increase as per capita income increases
D) are unrelated to per capita income
15) Large families in poor countries:
A) are rare because having many children is expensive
B) are common, due largely because of low infant and childhood mortality
C) are common, in part because more children means more labor
D) is becoming more common as the use of modern agriculture increases
16) Increased availability of contraceptives in very poor nations is unlikely to decrease family size
because:
A) families depend upon children for labor and support when the parents become old
B) infant and childhood mortality rates are already keeping family size low
C) the increased use of industry and technology has already decreased family size
D) poor families are already small because parents cannot afford to feed and house more
than one or two children
17) In general, as countries become more industrialized and developed:
A) use of contraception decreases
B) the cost of raising children decreases
C) people marry at an earlier age
D) support of the elderly increases
Unit 2 Examination
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GED 108 Environmental Science
18) Which of the following involves blue water?
A) percolation of water through soil
B) transpiration of water from leaves on a bright sunny day
C) evaporation of water from a lake on a windy day
D) the formation of a dense layer of fog on a cold fall day
19) Water is naturally purified by
A) evaporation and condensation.
B) transpiration and evaporation.
C) precipitation and infiltration.
D) condensation and transpiration.
20) The kinetic energy of water is at its lowest when:
A) rain forms
B) water evaporates
C) ice forms
D) water percolates through soil
21) Which of the following would we expect on the leeward sides of high mountain ranges?
A) deserts
B) rainforests
C) wetlands
D) deciduous forests
22) Which of the following contributes the most as a greenhouse gas?
A) oxygen levels in the air
B) water vapor levels in the air
C) nitrogen levels in the air
D) the amount of pollutants in ocean water
23) We expect the highest relative humidity on a soccer field during the summer on a:
A) hot afternoon during a drought
B) cool evening during a drought
C) hot afternoon following a heavy rain
D) cool evening after a heavy rain
Unit 2 Examination
85
GED 108 Environmental Science
24) About 99% of all liquid fresh water is found in:
A) underground aquifers.
B) rivers such as the Amazon, Nile, and Mississippi watersheds.
C) lakes, including the Great Lakes of North America.
D) the upper few meters of topsoil.
25) The greatest worldwide use of water is for
A) human consumption.
B) industry.
C) irrigation.
D) washing and flushing toilets
Unit 2 Examination
86
GED 108 Environmental Science
Writing Assignment for Unit Two
• Responses must be typed double-spaced, using a standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12
point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing
assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply
cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to
refer to
the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number with your
writing assignment.
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
1. Name and describe the roles of the three main trophic categories that make up the biotic
structure of every ecosystem. Give examples of organisms from each category.
2. List the environmental and social consequences of rapid population growth in rural developing
countries and urban areas.
3. What is meant by the debt crisis of the developing world? What is being done to help resolve
this crisis?
GED 108 Environmental Science Unit #3
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) One at a time, you test how quickly each of the following substances will settle out of water.
To measure this property, you separately test each of the following by placing 100 grams of the
substance and 500 milliliters of water into a 1 liter jar and screw on the lid tightly. Then you
shake the jar violently for 1 minute and set the jar down. Which one of the following would
settle the fastest, creating the clearest water in the fastest amount of time?
A) gravel
B) clay
C) silt
D) sand
2) A soil is found to have 40% sand, 40% silt, and 20% clay. This soil would be referred to as:
A) silty
B) sandy
C) clayey
D) loamy
3) Soils with the greatest water-holding capacity tend to have:
A) poor aeration and lowest workability
B) poor nutrient-holding capacity and good workability
C) good water infiltration and workability
D) good aeration and poor workability
4) Which one of the following soil horizons is least likely to be interacting directly with living
organisms?
A) A horizon
B) O horizon
C) E horizon
D) C horizon
5) Detritus feeders and decomposers are most likely found in the:
A) E and B horizon
B) A and O horizon
C) B and C horizon
D) C and E horizon
Unit 3 Examination
126
GED 108 Environmental Science
6) Severe wildfires followed by heavy rains have significantly eroded the soil of a formerly forested
region. Which one of the following horizons is most likely intact with little disturbance?
A) A horizon
B) O horizon
C) E horizon
D) C horizon
7) Compared to inorganic fertilizers, organic fertilizers such as
A) cow manure applied to a field increase the chances of nutrient leaching.
B) cow manure applied to a field reduce the chances of nutrient leaching.
C) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field decrease the chances of nutrient leaching.
D) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field increase the formation of humus.
8) The future worldwide use of irrigation:
A) is expected to double in the next 20 years due to increasing demands for food
B) is limited by the availability of freshwater, waterlogging, and salinization of soils
C) depends on new technologies to extract more groundwater
D) will require increased reliance on new hydrogen technologies to produce freshwater
9) The development of new varieties of grain crops increased productivity by increasing the:
A) surface area of the leaves of the plants
B) size of the roots and ability to absorb water
C) strength of the stems to support more grains
D) size and number of seeds
10) In the last 50 years, the greatest progress in addressing worldwide hunger and malnutrition
came from the:
A) use of better transportation methods to export grain more efficiently
B) development and use of new varieties of high-yielding wheat and rice
C) reduced reliance on pesticides, herbicides, and chemical fertilizers
D) widespread use of sustainable irrigation methods
11) Although the Green Revolution has greatly reduced world hunger and malnutrition, it has:
A) doubled the amount of land used to raise crops
B) not significantly increased the productivity of modern agriculture
C) required high levels of increasingly expensive fertilizer and pesticides
D) contributed significantly to the destruction of the ozone layer
Unit 3 Examination
127
GED 108 Environmental Science
12) The Hubbert peak accurately predicted
A) maximum U.S. oil consumption in 1972.
B) maximum U.S. oil consumption continuing to climb through today.
C) maximum U.S. oil production about 1995.
D) maximum U.S. oil production about 1970.
13) Although considerable variation exists around the world, globally, the percent of fossil fuels …
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